Thursday, August 18, 2011

My Complex Feelings on the Individual Mandate

With the Supreme Court now likely to take on challenges to the constitutionality of the individual mandate, it seems an appropriate time to explain my complex feelings about this controversial aspect of health care reform.

Let’s start with what I like about it.

There’s almost no question that the individual mandate is good policy. Anyone with even a cursory knowledge of insurance markets knows that adverse selection is a serious threat to the affordability of individual health coverage, and this threat is made worse by the guaranteed issue and community rating provisions in the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPACA).

The mandate corrects for an obvious market imperfection and achieves what almost everyone agrees is an important national priority: making sure that people aren’t driven into bankruptcy due to unforeseen illness. While the polling on health care reform is far from straightforward, it’s clear that a large number of Americans see affordable health care as a right of citizenship. The mandate itself doesn’t necessarily curb the long-term growth in health care costs, but it certainly expands access to medical services. It’s hard to argue that this is a bad thing.

The problem is that a mandate isn’t exactly the least intrusive means of achieving this important national priority. And even if it were the least intrusive means, it’s certainly not the only means, as many proponents of the PPACA would have you believe.

Indeed, anyone who can’t conceive of a workable alternative to the individual mandate probably hasn’t thought about it very hard. The Government Accountability Office (GAO) recently offered several promising approaches that are far more likely to pass constitutional muster. 

One of the most sensible options proposed by GAO is to impose a penalty on individuals who receive uncompensated health care, or on the employers of these individuals. This would incentivize the purchase or provision of health insurance in much the same way as a mandate, without stretching interpretations of the Commerce Clause (and the Necessary and Proper Clause) beyond the boundaries of logic.

The differences here may seem academic, but the constitutional implications are enormous. By imposing a penalty on individuals who receive uncompensated care, Congress would be regulating an actual economic transaction resulting from individual engagement in the health care market. That’s pretty different from Congress asserting the power to draw people into a market transaction, and then regulate that transaction.  

From a constitutional law perspective, the key question is whether the individual mandate is a valid use of Congress’s authority to regulate interstate economic activity. (We’ll return to the question of whether the associated “penalty” could be justified under the Taxing and Spending Clause in a moment.)


Because the Court has adopted an “aggregation principle” – whereby virtually any activity, however local or non-commercial, can be regulated if it would have a substantial effect on interstate commerce when collectively undertaken – the distinction between interstate and intrastate has become so fuzzy as to be almost irrelevant (see Wickard v. Filburn and Gonzales v. Raich).

So, no one denies that Congress has broad power to regulate even some of the most provincial activities under certain circumstances. But proponents of the individual mandate take the aggregation principle one step further, arguing that failure to engage in economic activity has a substantial aggregate effect on interstate commerce, and therefore falls under the regulatory purview of Congress.

This line of reasoning presumes that a lack of engagement in activity constitutes a form of activity. At the very least, it presumes that this distinction is irrelevant.

Whether the Court will ultimately allow the individual mandate on these grounds remains to be seen, but the logical problems here should be readily apparent. Even where the Court has upheld restrictions on fundamentally non-economic activities under the Commerce Clause, it has always pointed to some form of activity that, when taken in the aggregate, substantially impacts commerce. If the Court now finds the distinction between activity and inactivity meaningless, it’s very difficult to think of a limiting principle for congressional authority under the Commerce Clause.

Every minute that a person remains inactive is a minute she could be purchasing millions of products. If her failure to purchase these products constitutes interstate commerce, it’s not entirely clear what wouldn’t.    

The Court has previously expounded on the importance of a limiting principle with respect to the Commerce Clause (see United States v. Lopez):

The possession of a gun in a local school zone is in no sense an economic activity that might, through repetition elsewhere, substantially affect any sort of interstate commerce. Respondent was a local student at a local school; there is no indication that he had recently moved in interstate commerce, and there is no requirement that his possession of the firearm have any concrete tie to interstate commerce.

To uphold the Government's contentions here, we would have to pile inference upon inference in a manner that would bid fair to convert congressional authority under the Commerce Clause to a general police power of the sort retained by the States. Admittedly, some of our prior cases have taken long steps down that road, giving great deference to congressional action. The broad language in these opinions has suggested the possibility of additional expansion, but we decline here to proceed any further. To do so would require us to conclude that the Constitution's enumeration of powers does not presuppose something not enumerated and that there never will be a distinction between what is truly national and what is truly local.

If Court believes that the possession of a gun in a school zone has “no concrete tie to interstate commerce," by what line of reasoning could not possessing health insurance possibly constitute economic activity? The logic is at best strained, and at worst incoherent.

There is, of course, another possible constitutional justification for the individual mandate under the Taxing and Spending Clause. Many proponents of the mandate have argued that a non-compliance “penalty” assessed through the Internal Revenue Code is the functional equivalent of a tax, and thus clearly falls within Congressional authority under Article I, Section 8 to “lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises.” This reasoning has been rejected by every court that has ruled on the constitutionality of the mandate.

To summarize the problems with this argument briefly: the penalty is clearly designed to be a “punishment for an unlawful act or omission” (see U.S. v. Reorganized CF&I Fabricators of Utah, Inc., et al.). It is referred to as a “penalty” in the legislation, and it unambiguously meets the Court’s definition of a penalty. Moreover, the penalty cannot be considered an excise tax because there’s no “event” to be taxed. It is also cannot be considered an income tax under the Sixteenth Amendment because it is not levied on “undeniable accessions to wealth, clearly realized, and over which the taxpayers have complete dominion” (see Commissioner v. Glenshaw Glass Co.), but rather triggered by a failure to purchase health insurance. To call the penalty a tax is to obviate any distinction between taxes and penalties.   

In short, justifications for the individual mandate under both the Commerce Clause and the Taxing and Spending Clause seem difficult to construct. It is at least plausible that the mandate will be struck down.  

Let me stress that I have no idea which way the Court will actually come down on this issue. Maybe there's something key here that I'm missing. If the mandate is upheld, I’ll have mixed feelings. Health care is a special case, and the federal government should be doing more to control costs and expand coverage. But it’s far from clear to me that there are no alternatives to the individual mandate. In fact, there are many ways to achieve this important policy goal through constitutionally legitimate means.

What concerns me is that this debate isn’t really about the individual mandate or health care reform at all. It’s about an expansive interpretation of federal power. That’s a fair discussion to have, but let’s not pretend that the whole controversy relates to a single policy solution for which there is no reasonable alternative.

7 comments:

  1. I have two brief points:

    "One of the most sensible options proposed by GAO is to impose a penalty on individuals who receive uncompensated health care, or on the employers of these individuals." - I don’t think any Member of Congress wants to vote for “penalties” on citizens. I think it wasn't received well when Obama and Hilary Clinton were debating it in the 2008 presidential primary and I don't think either Democrats or Republicans in Congress would vote for it (for different reasons of course).

    "If the Court now finds the distinction between activity and inactivity meaningless, it’s very difficult to think of a limiting principle for congressional authority under the Commerce Clause." - This reminds me of the Walmart case because the majority opinion stated that the inability to have an anti discrimination policy is not a violation of anti discrimination laws. There has to be an actual ACT of discrimination not a NON-ACT … so it might be easy to see where this court will go in this case.

    However... we wouldn't need an individual mandate or a penalty if we had a single-payer health care system. I'll leave it at that.

    -Emily

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  2. 1. The Federal government has required private citizens to purchase HEALTH INSURANCE, not from private companies, but FROM THE GOVERNMENT itself. As Rick Ungar of Forbes wrote in a post titled, "Congress Passes Socialized Medicine and Mandates Health Insurance...":

    "In July of 1798, Congress passed – and President John Adams signed - 'An Act for the Relief of Sick and Disabled Seamen.' The law authorized the creation of a government operated marine hospital service and mandated that PRIVATELY employed sailors be required to purchase health care insurance.

    "Keep in mind, Ungar reminds us, "that the 5th Congress did not really need to struggle over the intentions of the drafters of the Constitutions in creating this Act as many of its members WERE the drafters of the Constitution."

    2. The Militia Acts of 1792, passed by the Second Congress and signed into law by President Washington, required every able-bodied white male citizen to enroll in his state’s militia and mandated that he “provide himself” with various goods for the common weal:

    [E]ach and every free able-bodied white male citizen of the respective States . . . shall severally and respectively be enrolled in the militia . . . .provid[ing] himself with a good musket or firelock, a sufficient bayonet and belt, two spare flints, and a knapsack, a pouch, with a box therein . . . and shall appear so armed, accoutred and provided, when called out to exercise or into service

    3. The federal government, indeed any government, punishes people for inactivity all the time. If I don't shovel my sidewalk, if a company does not purchased cleanup services from a private company to clean up pollution, if a state fails to obey many federal mandates if will lose federal funding, similarly for a company or an individual (e.g. if I don not continue enrolledment in school, I will lose my Pell grant), etc.

    4.More specifically, if a fine is legally different from a tax, why isn't the withholding of federal funds different from a tax? (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/South_Dakota_v._Dole)

    4. Finally I fail to see the _economic_ affects of gun possession while the economic affects of lack of insurance are clearly stated in your first few paragraphs. It is also clear that these issues affect interstate commerce.

    BTW I hate the idea of an individiual mandate to buy private health insurance because private health insurance is so inefficient. No other developed country uses it as unregulated and as extensively as we do, and they all get better health care at much lower cost.

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  3. OK, there’s a lot to address here, so I’ll try to be concise.

    First, the 1798 law did not require individual sailors to purchase health insurance. The concept of health insurance didn’t even exist at the time. The bill imposed a tax on the owners of vessels that were clearly engaged in commerce, and then allowed the ship-owners to deduct the cost of the tax from the sailors’ wages. (You can read the text of the law here.) The government can clearly tax people and use the money to provide health care. (This would be something akin to Medicare for all.) But that’s different from imposing a penalty on people who do not purchase health care themselves.

    Second, the Militia Acts of 1792 were never justified under the Commerce Clause. This is a separate enumerated power of Congress. Under Article 1, Section 8, Congress has the power to “To provide for calling forth the Militia to execute the Laws of the Union, suppress Insurrections and repel Invasions; To provide for organizing, arming, and disciplining, the Militia, and for governing such Part of them as may be employed in the Service of the United States . . . .”

    Third, both of these things happened before the process of judicial review had been established. Remember, Marbury v. Madison wasn’t until 1803. President Adams signed other bills that were clearly unconstitutional. For example, the Alien and Sedition Acts were an obvious violation of the First Amendment.

    Fourth, all of the examples you provide of government punishing people for inactivity either relate to state police powers (snow clearing ordinances) or requires some kind of active engagement in commerce (private companies are undeniably engaged in commerce).

    Fifth, the withholding of federal highways funds to states that do not raise their speed limit is a spending decision, not a form of taxation. Besides, it’s different. Congress could say that it will not offer federal loans to students who do not purchase – I don’t know – book insurance. This isn’t compelling an inactive person to engage in activity; it’s putting conditions on a person who is actively applying for a loan.

    Sixth, there’s clearly an enormous secondary market for handguns, but notice how the decision in Lopez primarily addresses the student’s actions –- whether he had recently moved in interstate commerce or whether his possession of the weapon is tied to interstate commerce –- rather than simply considering how the regulated object (guns) could be connected to interstate commerce.

    In terms of policy, I should say that I largely agree with you. Our system is messy and inefficient and even though I don’t think we can make one-to-one comparisons with other countries, it’s pretty clear that our strange hybrid public-private system doesn’t work nearly as well as predominantly public systems.

    -Jeremy

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  4. Let's see, let me restrict to a couple of points. In the case I cited (SD v Dole), it is clear that the withholding of funds was justified by the General Welfare granting to Congress the ability to tax.

    As for your references to state (did you mean states like NJ or the State?) police power, if not clear snow or cleaning up pollution falls under them, why not endangering the public by not buying health insurance? There is plenty of data showing the uninsured are less like to seek treatment which may be for a plague that kills thousands. In addition, not buying insurance endangers the public economically just as pollution nearby may lower the value of real estate.

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  5. 1) The General Welfare Clause falls under the Taxing and Spending Clause. The Court has held that the power to tax also implies a power to spend tax revenue on matters related to the General Welfare (see United States v. Butler). In South Dakota v. Dole, the Court ruled that the withholding of federal highway funds was justified under this power to spend revenue. Rehnquist, who delivered the opinion of the Court, wrote that "[e]ven if Congress might lack the power to impose a national minimum drinking age directly . . . encouragement to state action found in 158 is a valid use of the spending power." There was never any suggestion that this was a form of taxation, and the Court certainly didn't address the distinction between taxes and penalties.

    2)I mean states like New Jersey. Unlike the federal government, states clearly have the power to force you to engage in certain kinds of actions. There's no question that a state could force someone to purchase health insurance or car insurance. In fact, the federal government may be able to force states to impose their own individual mandates by threatening to withhold, say, a portion of SCHIP or Medicaid funding.

    -Jeremy

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  6. My last comment - Clearly the federal govenment has some police power, e.g. forcing people and companies to clean up pollution.

    Here is part of the concuring opinion written by Judge Jeffrey Sutton, who was appointed by President George W. Bush, and is on the 6th circuit: “No matter how you slice the relevant market — as obtaining health care, as paying for health care, as insuring for health care — all of these activities affect interstate commerce, in a substantial way,” he wrote. Because not paying for insurance is an economic decision, Congress was within its power to regulate that action. In fact, he noted, decisions not to buy insurance have more impact on interstate commerce than some activities that the Supreme Court previously found could be regulated, such as a farmer growing wheat for his own use or an individual growing marijuana for her own use."

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  7. The federal government certainly has the power to regulate people or businesses engaged in interstate commerce, or engaged in activities that could substantially impact interstate commerce. In the example you cite, there is clearly an activity – the act of polluting – that is being regulated. This is very different from the government drawing an inactive person into an economic activity under the guise of regulating that activity.

    The Court has repeatedly said that the Commerce Clause gives Congress the power to regulate interstate and, in some cases, intrastate “economic activity,” which is defined as “the production, distribution, and consumption of commodities” (see Gonzales v. Raich). But if there’s no logical distinction between “economic activity” and “not-economic activity,” the term is all-encompassing.

    In other words, you’re defining Congressional power under the Commerce Clause in a way that includes even jurisdiction over things that are the literal opposite of economic activity – non-production, non-distribution, and non-consumption of commodities. How can there be any room for a limiting principle under this reasoning? If A is both A and not-A, then A is everything.

    In Lopez, the Court struck down the federal Gun Free School Zone Act because it penalized “mere possession” of a firearm, and thus lacked “an explicit connection with or effect on interstate commerce.” The federal government relied on a series of logical inferences to tie gun possession to interstate commerce. Specifically, it argued that: (1) “possession of a firearm in a school zone may result in violent crime”; (2) “the costs of violent crime are substantial”; and (3) “through the mechanism of insurance, those costs are spread throughout the population.”

    The justices ruled that these inferences leave no room for a limiting principle.

    If the possession of a dangerous weapon is too tenuously tied to “the costs of crime” to have any connection with interstate commerce, then it’s difficult to envision a scenario in which the non-possession of health insurance could be logically tied to the costs of medical services in a way that doesn’t require us to “pile inference upon inference.”

    In Lopez, the Court further complained that the Gun Free School Zone Act did not contain a “jurisdictional element” which would “ensure, through case-by-case inquiry, that the firearm possession in question affects interstate commerce.” This jurisdictional element is also absent in the case of the individual mandate.

    But even if we could assume that failure to purchase health insurance has a substantial future impact on medical costs in every single case, the argument still strikes me as a stretch. In United States v. Morrison, the federal government produced extensive research showing that, among other things, gender-motivated violence increases medical costs. But the Court still struck down the Violence Against Women Act because the logic supplied by the federal government would have allowed Congress to regulate “any crime as long as the nationwide, aggregated impact of that crime has substantial effects on employment, production, transit, or consumption.”

    Clearly, the Court believes that there must be a logical limit to Congressional power under the Commerce Clause. So, in my mind, the burden is on proponents of the mandate to explain the theoretical limits of federal authority if Congress is able to compel the purchase of any market product simply because the failure to purchase this product would result in higher future costs in a related market.

    -Jeremy

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